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Some practice about the latest Juniper Networks JN0-331 exam which are updated by Test4actual,maybe it will help you pass your exams.
1. Regarding zone types, which statement is true?
A. You cannot assign an interface to a functional zone.
B. You can specifiy a functional zone in a security policy.
C. Security zones must have a scheduler applied.
D. You can use a security zone for traffic destined for the device itself.
Answer: D
2. Regarding attacks, which statement is correct?
A. Both DoS and propagation attacks exploit and take control of all unprotected network devices.
B. Propagation attacks focus on suspicious packet formation using the DoS SYN-ACK-ACK proxy flood.
C. DoS attacks are directed at the network protection devices, while propagation attacks are directed at the servers.
D. DoS attacks are exploits in nature, while propagation attacks use trust relationships to take control of the devices.
Answer: D
3. Click the Exhibit button.
[edit schedulers]
user@host# show
scheduler now {
monday all-day;
tuesday exclude;
wednesday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
thursday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
}
[edit security policies from-zone Private to-zone External]
user@host# show
policy allowTransit {
match {
source-address PrivateHosts;
destination-address ExtServers;
application ExtApps;
}
then {
permit {
tunnel {
ipsec-vpn myTunnel;
}
}
}
scheduler-name now;
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what are the actions of the security policy?
A. The policy will always permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel.
B. The policy will permit transit packets only on Monday, and use the IPsec VPN Mytunnel.
C. The policy will permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday and Wednesday 7am to
6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
D. The policy will always permit transit packets, but will only use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday and
Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
Answer: C
4. Which two statements are true regarding proxy ARP? (Choose two.)
A. Proxy ARP is enabled by default.
B. Proxy ARP is not enabled by default.
C. JUNOS security devices can forward ARP requests to a remote device when proxy ARP is enabled.
D. JUNOS security devices can reply to ARP requests intended for a remote device when proxy ARP is enabled.
Answer: BD
5. For IKE phase 1 negotiations, when is aggressive mode typically used?
A. when one of the tunnel peers has a dynamic IP address
B. when one of the tunnel peers wants to force main mode to be used
C. when fragmentation of the IKE packet is required between the two peers
D. when one of the tunnel peers wants to specify a different phase 1 proposal
Answer:A

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6. Click the Exhibit button.
[edit groups]
user@host# show
node0 {
system {
host-name NODE0;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
node1 {
system {
host-name NODE1;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.2/24;
}
}
}
}
}
In the exhibit, what is the function of the configuration statements?
A. This section is where you define all chassis clustering configuration.
B. This configuration is required for members of a chassis cluster to talk to each other.
C. You can apply this configuration in the chassis cluster to make configuration easier.
D. This section is where unique node configuration is applied.
Answer: D
7. Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms does not forward traffic by default; a traditional router forwards traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms uses session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms performs route lookup for every packet; a traditional router performs route lookup only for the first packet.
Answer: BC
8. Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms secures traffic by default; a traditional router does not secure traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms allows for session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses packetbased forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms separates broadcast domains; a traditional router does not separate broadcast domains.
Answer: BC
9. A traditional router is better suited than a firewall device for which function?
A. VPN establishment
B. packet-based forwarding
C. stateful packet processing
D. Network Address Translation
Answer: B
10. Which three functions are provided by JUNOS Software for security platforms? (Choose three.)
A. VPN establishment
B. stateful ARP lookups
C. Dynamic ARP inspection
D. Network Address Translation
E. inspection of packets at higher levels (Layer 4 and above)
Answer:ADE

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Some practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.

1. You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries.
How do you proceed?
A. Enable split tunneling.
B. Disable split tunneling.
C. Enable split tunneling with route change monitor.
D. Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor.
Answer: D

2. Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. ACE
C. SAML
D. LDAP
E. SiteMinder
Answer: ABD

3. You create a set of role mapping rules. You select “Merge settings for all assigned roles.” The second role mapping rule has the “Stop processing rules when this rule matches” option selected. A user logs in that matches the first three rules. What happens?
A. This is not a valid combination. The system displays an error message and does not update the configuration.
B. The merge settings override the stop processing option. The user matches all three roles and merging follows the standard merging criteria.
C. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The merge option only merges the roles of the first two rules following the IVE’s built-in permissive merging rules.
D. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The user now just matches the second rule. The merge option is overridden and the user is given only the privileges defined by the second role.
Answer: C

4. When using the J-SAM, where on a client machine would you look to verify that the loopback addresses are assigned correctly?
A. HOSTS file
B. ARP cache
C. LMHOSTS file
D. local route table
Answer: A

5. What is Cache Cleaner used for?
A. to prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
B. to remove content downloaded during the IVE session
C. to remove Web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. to determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
Answer: B

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6. Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: A

7. Which two Web Resource Policy features provide you with the capability to configure the IVE to work with corporate Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)
A. Web Proxy Policies
B. Web Proxy Servers
C. Web Cache Policies
D. Web Passthrough Proxy
Answer: AB

8. Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC.
B. SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection.
C. SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D. SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Answer: CD

9. You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.)
A. Certificate
B. User Attribute
C. RSA Attributes
D. Group Membership
Answer: AB

10. Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A. behind the Internet firewall
B. internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C. both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall
D. parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Answer: A


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Some practice updated by Test4actual[B][/B] may help you pass your exams.
1.Which two statements are correct regarding NHTB? (Choose two.)
A. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get nhtb.
B. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface .
C. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface .
D. NHTB is enabled automatically when multiple VPNs are bound to a single tunnel interface.
Answer: BD

2. Which two statements are true regarding the use of dialup VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. They are initiated only by the remote host PC.
B. They can only be connected to the trust zone on a ScreenOS device.
C. They are configured so that the first IKE message will always have the SA proposal list.
D. They can be used as an alternative to connect remote users when a ScreenOS device has reached the maximum number of LANtoLAN tunnels.
Answer: AC

3. Your ScreenOS device has come under a SYN flood attack. In the logs, which severity level would you search to see this event?
A. Alert
B. Critical
C. Warning
D. Emergency
Answer: D

4. Which command will show address translation for sessions that have ended?
A. snoop
B. get session
C. get log traffic
D. get dbuf stream
Answer: C

5.Which item in a virtual system is shared by default?
A. trust zone in the trustvr
B. trust zone in the untrustvr
C. untrust zone in the trustvr
D. untrust zone in the untrustvr
Answer: C

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6. What should you configure to insure an HA cable failure does not result in both devices attempting to become master?
A. failover count
B. secondary path
C. monitor threshold
D. heartbeat threshold
Answer: B

7. What will happen if you type the command unset protocol vrouter trustvr protocol ospf?
A. OSPF stops running, but the OSPF configuration is left intact.
B. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter only.
C. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from all interfaces in the vrouter.
D. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter and from all interfaces in the vrouter.
Answer: D

8. To which three ScreenOS components can a policybased routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer:ACD

9. Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

10. Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

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11. Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trustvr protocol pim
Answer: D

12. Click the Exhibit button.
Inthe exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

13. During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A. messages 1 & 2
B. messages 2 & 3
C. messages 3 & 4
D. messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

14. Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A. proxyid,
SA proposal list
B. IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C.hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D. SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

15. What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A. Phase 1 PFS
B. Phase 2 SHA
C. Phase 2 3DES
D. Phase 2 DH key exchange
Answer: D

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16. Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B. The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C. The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D. The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E. The proxyid is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

17. What must be configured differently for a routebased VPN and a policybased VPN?
A. proxyid
B. proposals
C. remote gateway type
D. binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

18. You have configured the following on your device.The VPN is not working properly. What is the problem?
A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

19. You create a policybased VPN, and select an address group for the source address.What will be the source component of the proxyid seen by the remote security gateway?
A. the default 0.0.0.0/0
B. the last member of the address group
C. the first member of the address group
D. the subnet that contains all addresses in the address group
Answer: A

20. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the routebased VPN on the SSG 5 needs to configured to allow access only from your PC 8 to Server G. The SSG 550 is configured with a policybased VPN from Server G to your PC’s host address.Assume the gateways are static.Which proxyid must be configured?
A. Local: 10.0.0.5/24Remote: 20.0.0.5/24
B. Local: 10.0.0.5/32Remote: 20.0.0.5/32
C. Local: 1.1.1.250/32Remote: 4.4.4.250/32
D. Local: 1.1.1.250/24Remote: 4.4.4.250/24
Answer: B


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1. Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A. 224.0.0.2
B. 224.0.0.5
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

2. What are three methods for managing a Juniper Enterprise Router? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. SDX
C. SAP
D. J-Web
E. J-Config
Answer: ABD

3. Which IGP should you use to achieve scalability in a large enterprise network using Juniper enterprise routers?
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
Answer: C

4. Which configuration statement allows local non-root users access to the router only when the RADIUS server is unreachable?
A. [edit]
system {
authentication-order radius;
}
B. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius password ];
}
C. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius if-authenticated ];
}
D. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius local ];
}
Answer: A

5. Which two statements about the Adaptive Services PIC are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Adaptive Services PIC supports the Layer 3 service package by default.
B. The Adaptive Services PIC is required when using the secure shell to access an M-series router.
C. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for the Layer 2 and Layer 3 service packages simultaneously.
D. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for either the Layer 2 or the Layer 3 service package but not both at the same time.
Answer: AD

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6. What are two benefits of MLPPP? (Choose two.)
A. Cost-efficient solution when incrementing bandwidth.
B. Provides for fail over when the primary link goes down.
C. Evenly distributes traffic over participating member links.
D. Guarantees that the link will remain up during failure scenarios.
Answer: AC

7. Which major J-Web menu should you use to upgrade the JUNOS software on the router?
A. Monitor
B. Manage
C. Diagnose
D. Configuration
Answer: B

8. How are multiple policies evaluated within the JUNOS software?
A. alphabetically
B. as an ordered list
C. in a round robin manner
D. numerically from lowest to highest
Answer: B

9. Which statement is true about accessing a Juniper enterprise router using a Web browser?
A. J-series routers are accessible by default.
B. M7i and M10i routers are accessible by default.
C. You need to install a license before accessing a J-series router.
D. You need to enable the HTTP service on M7i, M10i, and J-series routers before accessing them.
Answer: A

10. What are two ways to create a rescue configuration on a J-series router? (Choose two.)
A. Use the J-Web System > Rescue menu.
B. Use the J-Web Configuration > Rescue menu.
C. Issue the configure rescue save command.
D. Issue the request system configuration rescue save command.
Answer: BD

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1. Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A. 224.0.0.2
B. 224.0.0.5
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

2. What are three methods for managing a Juniper Enterprise Router? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. SDX
C. SAP
D. J-Web
E. J-Config
Answer: ABD

3. Which IGP should you use to achieve scalability in a large enterprise network using Juniper enterprise
routers?
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
Answer: C

4. Which configuration statement allows local non-root users access to the router only when the RADIUS server is unreachable?
A. [edit]
system {
authentication-order radius;
}
B. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius password ];
}
C. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius if-authenticated ];
}
D. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius local ];
}
Answer: A

5. Which two statements about the Adaptive Services PIC are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Adaptive Services PIC supports the Layer 3 service package by default.
B. The Adaptive Services PIC is required when using the secure shell to access an M-series router.
C. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for the Layer 2 and Layer 3 service packages simultaneously.
D. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for either the Layer 2 or the Layer 3 service package but not both at the same time.
Answer: AD

6. What are two benefits of MLPPP? (Choose two.)
A. Cost-efficient solution when incrementing bandwidth.
B. Provides for fail over when the primary link goes down.
C. Evenly distributes traffic over participating member links.
D. Guarantees that the link will remain up during failure scenarios.
Answer: AC

7. Which major J-Web menu should you use to upgrade the JUNOS software on the router?
A. Monitor
B. Manage
C. Diagnose
D. Configuration
Answer: B

8. How are multiple policies evaluated within the JUNOS software?
A. alphabetically
B. as an ordered list
C. in a round robin manner
D. numerically from lowest to highest
Answer: B

9. Which statement is true about accessing a Juniper enterprise router using a Web browser?
A. J-series routers are accessible by default.
B. M7i and M10i routers are accessible by default.
C. You need to install a license before accessing a J-series router.
D. You need to enable the HTTP service on M7i, M10i, and J-series routers before accessing them.
Answer: A

10. What are two ways to create a rescue configuration on a J-series router? (Choose two.)
A. Use the J-Web System > Rescue menu.
B. Use the J-Web Configuration > Rescue menu.
C. Issue the configure rescue save command.
D. Issue the request system configuration rescue save command.
Answer: BD

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11. Which CLI command allows you to determine how many licenses are currently used on the router and are further needed by the router?
A. show system license key
B. show system license usage
C. show system license total
D. show system license profile
Answer: B

12. Which logical unit number must be configured on an interface using PPP encapsulation?
A. unit 0
B. unit 1
C. unit 100
D. unit 255
Answer: A

13. The J-Web application can install the JUNOS software from which two locations? (Choose two.)
A. SDX
B. local PC
C. BSD shell
D. remote host
Answer: BD

14. What is the default route preference for static routes?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 170
Answer: B

15. Which two statements about the track configuration option are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The track option monitors interfaces as defined by the user.
B. The track option monitors all interfaces participating in VRRP.
C. The track option allows for a reduction of the priority value if the monitored interface goes down.
D. The track option causes syslog entries to be written in the messages log file, if the monitored interface goes down.
Answer: AC

16. Which configuration example represents a services interface configured for a MLPPP bundle on a J-series router?
A. ml-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.18.37.5/30;
}
B. lsq-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.18.37.5/30;
}
C. sp-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.18.37.5/30;
}
D. ls-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.18.37.5/30;
}
Answer: D

17. What happens when a route does not match any user configured policies?
A. The route is rejected.
B. The route is accepted.
C. The route is given a lower priority.
D. The route is sent to the default policy.
Answer: D

18. Which three steps are required when configuring NAT? (Choose three.)
A. Define a rule-set.
B. Define a NAT rule.
C. Create a NAT pool.
D. Define services interface.
E. Configure an application-set.
Answer: BCD

19. Which three initial configuration methods are supported on J-series routers? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. J-Web
C. JUNOScope
D. autoinstallation
E. PCMCIA flash card
Answer: ABD

20. What is a correct configuration using autoinstallation?
A. [edit system autoinstallation]
user@host# show
interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
rarp;
}
configuration-servers {
tftp://tftpconfig.sp.com/config.conf;
}
B. [edit system autoinstallation]
user@host# show
interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
rarp;
}
bootp-servers {
10.34.1.1;
}
C. [edit system autoinstallation]
user@host# show
configuration-servers {
tftp://tftpconfig.sp.com/config.conf;
interfaces ge-0/0/0 slarp;
}
D. [edit system autoinstallation]
user@host# show
interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
dhcp;
}
configuration-servers {
tftp://tftpconfig.sp.com/config.conf;

}
Answer: A

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“JNCIA “, also known as JN0-341 exam, is a Juniper Networks certification.
Exam Details
The JNCIA exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Juniper Networks Certified Network Associate JNCIA certification. The JNCIA (JN0-341) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Juniper Networks Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Juniper Networks Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Juniper Networks networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists,Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

The latest exams are provided by Test4actual,hope to help you!
1.Which command copies the factorydefault files to your backup media?
A.request system snapshot rescue
B.request system snapshot factory
C.request system snapshot default
D.request system snapshot asprimary
Correct:B

2.What are two methods of accessing a Juniper enterprise router? (Choose two)
A.RSH
B.HTTPS
C.console
D.JConfig
Correct:B C

3.What is the default route preference for static routes?
A.0
B.5
C.10
D.170
Correct:B

4.What is shown by the command show interfaces extensive fe0/0/0 but not shown by the command show interface detail fe0/0/0?
A.input error counter
B.interface MTU size
C.input packets counter
D.the IP address on logical interface fe0/0/0.0
Correct:A

5.What does the number one (1) represent for interface fe0/0/1?
A.port number
B.PCI slot number
C.channel number
D.virtual PIC number
Correct:A

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6.What are two functions of the Intel IXP processors? (Choose two.)
A.keepalives
B.routelookup
C.CRC validation
D.Layer 2 decapsulation
Correct:A C

7.Which CLI command will ping destination 10.0.29.1 ten times and display the incoming interface of the received packet?
A.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 detail
B.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 detail
C.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
D.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
Correct: A

8.Which JWeb menu displays the users currently logged into the CLI?
A.Monitor > Users
B.Manage > Users
C.Monitor > System
D.Manage > System
Correct:C

9.Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A.224.0.0.2
B.224.0.0.5
C.224.0.0.9
D.255.255.255.255
Correct:C

10.Which two statements regarding system logging on a Juniper enterprise router are correct?(Choose two.)
A.The system log has a proprietary format.
B.System logs must be sent to a remote device.
C.New system logs can be created and archived.
D.Most software processes create their own logs.
Correct:C D

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Some practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.
1. Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

2. A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

3. By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

4. During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

5. Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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6. What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

7. If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

8. Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

9. What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

10. Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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